What % of American women are infected with STD's?

[FreeGhostSpectator 318]

or STI’s? (sexually transmitted infections).

[Puffin StuffParticipant 24979]

The CDC does a pretty extensive breakdown of how much STD’s are happening. You can find it at http://www.cdc.gov/std/stats12/surv2012.pdf

If you want some idea of how much disease is out there (prevalence) or how frequently a new infection occurs (incidence) will depend on where you look. In the CDC’s data the prevalence of chlamydia, the most common STD, is 6.8% in women 14-19, I imagine these are the highest numbers.

C. trachomatis infection is the most commonly reported
notifiable disease in the United States. It is among
the most prevalent of all STDs, and since 1994, has
comprised the largest proportion of all STDs reported
to CDC (Table 1). Studies also demonstrate the high
prevalence of chlamydial infections in the general U.S.
population. Based on estimates from national surveys
conducted from 1999–2008, chlamydia prevalence is
6.8% among sexually active females aged 14–19 years.

it’s so common that:

Because of the large
burden of disease and risks associated with infection,
CDC recommends that all sexually active women
younger than age 26 years receive annual chlamydia
screening

I have also read a study a while back from Europe. They followed women for like 40 years and found that the lifetime risk of HPV infection in the women studied was 80%.

I suppose the take away message is that not that many women, like 7% will have an STD at any one time. In other words, the likely hood that Sue Ann has has chlamydia and you’ll be p~~~ing puss is about 7%. But, given the sheer number of sexual partners women have today, most women will suffer STD’s in their lifetime.

And, remember, love is fleeting but Herpes is forever.

#icethemout; Remember Thomas Ball. He died for your children.

[нσтησσвParticipant 830]

http://www.trojancondoms.com/ArticleDetails.aspx?ArticleId=12

Just to give you an idea.

It’s something like a 60% female 40% male ratio for STDs.
So, roughly 1/4 of women have an incurable STD.

If the chick is below the age of 25 and is sexually active… she is practically guaranteed to have an STD.

My Goal: To Leave Society.

[RoyDalParticipant]

There is a way to calculate the odds of screwing an infected woman. I won’t struggle with trying to post the formula as it involves superscripts.
Given probability of infection, p = .068 and the number of trials, n = 50, then the probability is P = 0.97.

So what does this mean? If you score 50 times with a group of women who have a 6.8% invention rate, then your chances of boinking an infected one is 97%. That’s scoring once a week for a year, with two weekends off for travel and vacations.

If I had these odds in the stock market, I’d be a multimillionaire — or billionaire, but you got to stop and smell the roses sometime. My advice is: Watch where you stick that thing!

EDIT: Here’s the formula.

P = 1-(1-p )ⁿ

Where,
P = probability of event after n trials
p = probability of event in overall population
n = number of trials

Society asks MGTOWs: Why are you not making more tax-slaves?

[Jackson1888Participant 111]

If she is HOT and over the age of 25…”She be a Stank Ass Hoe”…which means she has an STD.

For average looking women its 80%+

For women 16-24 the percentages are much lower. I have no idea how to calculate. If they are highly sexually active young women are probably 60% infected.

If they are normally sexually active I would guess around 25% of women  16-24 have them.

For women 16-25-4 with 3 or less partners, many do not have STDs

I think its pretty obvious where this is going      😉

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